steelengineer Posted October 31, 2005 Report Share Posted October 31, 2005 it's probably some bad math trick, like differentiating a constant and then integrating it.....try it and see if it works. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
learnin to learn Posted November 2, 2005 Report Share Posted November 2, 2005 :confused: :edizzy: :frown: :xx: :doh: :) :confused: :confused: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bartock Posted November 2, 2005 Report Share Posted November 2, 2005 :confused: now everyone knows 6+6=36 or is it 6x6=12?:confused: i am so confused:shrug: :confused:you must be talking about another universe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
learnin to learn Posted November 4, 2005 Report Share Posted November 4, 2005 you must be talking about another universe I might be...:hihi: thats for you to find out Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edge Posted November 4, 2005 Report Share Posted November 4, 2005 1 = 0 That comes from a mathematical fallacy. Proof that 0 equals 1: Start with the addition of an infinite succession of zero's 0 = 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + ... Then recognize that 0 = 1 − 1 0 = (1 - 1) + (1 - 1) + ... Applying the associative law of addition results in 0 = 1 + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + (-1 + 1) + ... Of course − 1 + 1 = 0 0 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + ... And the addition of an infinite string of zero's can be discarded leaving 0 = 1 Q.E.D. The error here is that the associative law cannot be applied freely to an infinite sum unless the sum would converge without any parentheses. In this particular argument, the second line gives the sequence of partial sums 0, 0, 0, ... (which converges to 0) while the third line gives the sequence of partial sums 1, 1, 1, ... (which converges to 1), so it is unclear in what sense these expressions can be considered equal. Source There are other mathematical fallacies in there as well. CraigD 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bartock Posted November 4, 2005 Report Share Posted November 4, 2005 I might be...:hihi: thats for you to find outok lets find out. where are you from? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
learnin to learn Posted November 9, 2005 Report Share Posted November 9, 2005 I am from the grat universe of Alabama =)WHere eveythang be backwerds :friday: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wizzkid67 Posted November 23, 2005 Report Share Posted November 23, 2005 if u divide by zero u can end up with a stupid answer like 1=0 right first a=b multiply both sides by a gives a^2=ab add a^2-2ab to both sides and simplifi 2(a^2-ab)=a^2-ab divide both sides by a^2-ab gives 2=1 subtact 1 from both sides gives 1=0 which is a total break down of logic Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tormod Posted November 23, 2005 Report Share Posted November 23, 2005 divide both sides by a^2-ab gives 2=1...which is a total break down of logic I disagree - it's not a breakdown of logic. If anything it shows that we do not understand too well how to use zero in division. Division by zero is illogical because we cannot express it in a rational way. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wizzkid67 Posted November 23, 2005 Report Share Posted November 23, 2005 I disagree - it's not a breakdown of logic. If anything it shows that we do not understand too well how to use zero in division. Division by zero is illogical because we cannot express it in a rational way. i believe u just used a bad bit of logic there Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
learnin to learn Posted December 1, 2005 Report Share Posted December 1, 2005 if u divide by zero u can end up with a stupid answer like 1=0 right first a=b multiply both sides by a gives a^2=ab add a^2-2ab to both sides and simplifi 2(a^2-ab)=a^2-ab divide both sides by a^2-ab gives 2=1 subtact 1 from both sides gives 1=0 which is a total break down of logicI am totally confused!!!!! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wizzkid67 Posted December 1, 2005 Report Share Posted December 1, 2005 because a=b a*a-a*b is like saying a*a-a*a which is zero and since u cant devide by zero it breaks down the logic of mathematics giving u stupid answers it was stuff like this that people were sending in when fermet last therom had not be proved and they offered money for the proof Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
learnin to learn Posted December 2, 2005 Report Share Posted December 2, 2005 because a=b a*a-a*b is like saying a*a-a*a which is zero and since u cant devide by zero it breaks down the logic of mathematics giving u stupid answers it was stuff like this that people were sending in when fermet last therom had not be proved and they offered money for the proof so b*b-b*b = a*a-a*a??? and they both = zero? so 2*2-2*2=0 oh crap I get it!!!!!!! I was not useing order of operations!!!!! I am sorry I was having a blonde moment:eek_big: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edge Posted December 2, 2005 Report Share Posted December 2, 2005 Please avoid mathematical fallacies. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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