sanctus Posted February 9, 2005 Report Share Posted February 9, 2005 Just a question: does anybody know why Botlzman's entropy S=k*log(W) (with k the boltzman constant and W proportionnel of the number of ways one can arrange the sytem) isn't extensive? Ie. why lim (1/N)*k*log(W) diverges? Thanks very much to those who know (and answer as well :) ). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sanctus Posted February 15, 2005 Author Report Share Posted February 15, 2005 73 views and nobody knows!I deduce from that that noone likes statistical mecanics :) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
maddog Posted February 16, 2005 Report Share Posted February 16, 2005 73 views and nobody knows!I deduce from that that noone likes statistical mecanics :(My worst subject in Physics... :( I will have to research this... Ask Bo. Maddog Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sanctus Posted February 16, 2005 Author Report Share Posted February 16, 2005 If it was your worst subject does this mean you don't like it? By the way Bo already told me that he didn't like it, so I guess he doesn't know but we will see when he'll be back. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alxian Posted February 16, 2005 Report Share Posted February 16, 2005 entropy.. where does the energy go? its like the universe is self metabolizing. which would imply the big crunch, but thats contrary to popular expansionist theory... is dark matter simply simple particles resulting from entropy of normal matter? once the fire goes out you're left with soot? tormod ain't gonna like this post i'm sure. .. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bo Posted February 17, 2005 Report Share Posted February 17, 2005 well here i am again... and i'm affraid i don't know....but i can guess of course :(and my guess is that th e N particles have to be destributed over at least N energy states. This can be done in N! different ways, so W~>N! (~>="at least proportional to") and 1/N log(N!) diverges. (by the golden rule that anything with a !-sign diverges...) and no i dn't like statistical mechanics :() Bo Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
maddog Posted February 18, 2005 Report Share Posted February 18, 2005 Like Bo says, if log(W) diverges, total would diverge. I found a couple of websites thatmight help.... http://members.tripod.com/~boltzmann/ludwig.htmlhttp://www.draaisma.net/rudi/compex/appendix.htmlhttp://facweb.eths.k12.il.us/chemphys/Word/Chem-Phys%20ENTROPY%20-%20Student.htm I found these from a Google search. :D Maddog Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sanctus Posted February 22, 2005 Author Report Share Posted February 22, 2005 I found these from a Google search. :cup: Maddog I know, but usually I prefer to hear explications from people I somehow know a bit and so I preferred to ask here. Actually it didn't even come to my mind to search in the net, so thanks for remining me of that option :hihi: Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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