ughaibu Posted February 28, 2006 Report Share Posted February 28, 2006 I read recently that "originally the number 2 was not considered even". Can anyone explain to me how the number 2 was considered? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jay-qu Posted February 28, 2006 Report Share Posted February 28, 2006 maybe they though even numbers couldnt be prime... :hyper: *calls for turtle* if anyone here knows he would :hyper: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Qfwfq Posted March 2, 2006 Report Share Posted March 2, 2006 Hmmm... I think the concept of 'even' came long before that of 'prime' because people considered numbers even or odd since ancient times. Prime is a much more sophisticated notion. I really can't think why such a thing, are you sure Ughaibu? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ughaibu Posted March 2, 2006 Author Report Share Posted March 2, 2006 I read it here: http://www.math.tamu.edu/~don.allen/history/pythag/pythag.html Other than that I cant vouch for it's reliability. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Qfwfq Posted March 2, 2006 Report Share Posted March 2, 2006 Thanks, I'm in a hurry to read it before tomorrow but the first thing that hit my eye was: "Pythagorean philosophy was the prime source of inspiration for Plato and Aristotle" :hihi: :) :hihi: :hihi: :eek2: :hihi: Aristotle was very much an opponent of Pythagoras! :shrug: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ughaibu Posted March 19, 2006 Author Report Share Posted March 19, 2006 Qfwfq: Do you think it could be connected to this stuff: http://www-groups.dcs.st-and.ac.uk/~history/HistTopics/Egyptian_papyri.html ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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