Dall Posted September 11, 2022 Report Share Posted September 11, 2022 My question is based on the pedigree tree below: even though child 1 is affected from having two recessive parents, what do the odds look like if they then have a child with unaffected non-carrier. In other words does being an affected child of parents who both have a recessive gene, mean that the child is now considered to have a dominant gene? Or does being affected with 2 recessive genes mean they are considered recessive to have a recessive gene when drawing the next generation on the pedigree tree? Male Parent (Carrier, not affected), Female Parent (Carrier, not affected) Child 1 (Affected female), Child 2 ( Affected male)- Likely to be a recessive gene as each child has two faulty genes, not likely to be X linked because both sexes affected. Even though here the chances are 25% each time so it is 1 in 12 chance of having all 3 children being affected? Child 1 (Affected female) + Partner 1 (unaffected male, non carrier) - What are the chances this couple's child will be affected, chances of being a carrier, and chances of being unaffected? Child 2 (Affected male) + Partner 1 (unaffected male, non carrier) - What are the chances this couple's child will be affected, chances of being a carrier, and chances of being unaffected? Thanks! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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