Pmb Posted July 27, 2015 Report Share Posted July 27, 2015 Where did the last sum come from? Try letting an = bn = 1, m = 2. Then you have 2/(x + 1) = 0 which has no solution. However your sum gives x = -1 which makes the sum undefined. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CraigD Posted July 27, 2015 Report Share Posted July 27, 2015 Where did the last sum come from? Try letting an = bn = 1, m = 2. Then you have 2/(x + 1) = 0 which has no solution. However your sum gives x = -1 which makes the sum undefined.You’re right. There needs to be an additional condition attached, to read: [math]\sum_{n=1}^{m} \frac{1}{a_nx+b_n} \,=\, 0[/math] has solution [math]x=-\frac{\sum_{n=1}^{m} b_n}{\sum_{n=1}^{m}a_n}[/math] when [math]m[/math] is even and [math]\frac{b_i}{a_i} \not = \frac{b_j}{a_j}[/math] for all [math]1 \le a,j \le m[/math], [math]i \not = j[/math]. You could say I omitted this for brevity, or out of laziness – the distinction is a fine one. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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