redcorner2000 Posted April 7, 2021 Report Share Posted April 7, 2021 (edited) I mean, first of all, English, French, and partly German. With others, I just barely know. It is believed that these are Indo-European languages, but there, as far as I understand, the population approach is applied. Typologically, these are not Indo-European languages, because their grammar is analytic, which is not typical of the ancient Aryans. In addition, there are articles, which is also a very clear sign of non-IE grammar Old European languages, which originated from Latin, belonged to Indo-European. Then they radically change, and only the irregular verbs remain from the Indo-European grammar. What is the reason for this? Edited April 7, 2021 by redcorner2000 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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