aurumdeus

But least provides strong evidence against it?

doesnt this argument then instantly disprove point particle physics?

True. she seems to know the sylabus, but not much else. i forever find myself asking her questions and receiving no answer...oh well

this is true, but then that person's situation would still have different possibilities for anyone who was not inside the box. for example, the person within would know if they were dead or alive, but to anyone else they could still be in either of those states. the same goes for the cat. it knows if it is dead or alive, but to us outside it is still in a superposition of these states.

regardless of wether telepathy can be scientifically proven or not, it does take place. many have experienced it, myself included, and although i am very rational and live a life based on fact rather than fiction, i am unable to deny its existence. if i had not experienced it myself i would doubtlessly deny it, basing my beliefs on logic. nearly everybody who has not experienced it would do the same, as it is not a concept that it easy to accept.

While i myself have not had, or more likely simply cannot remember having had any lucid dreams, i have had many experiences of precognition, both about small thing and large. i generally get small ones every month or so, and large ones 3 to 4 times a year. by small, i simply mean things like knowing i am going to meet someone, even though i know they live a long way away and thinking that they are at home, but unconciounsly knowing i willl see them, or knowing my result in a test, down to the exact percentage even before it has been marked. i, along with my family, also experience telepathy to a certain scale. for example, me and my mother both contacted a friend who we had not seen for a long time, and had not even mentioned, within the space of a few minutes. when i was younger, i was also able to read my twin sister's mind pretty accurately. i used to feel her emotions, even when separated from her, and if we were playing 'i spy' i would know what she had chosen the instant she had chosen it, before she had even said the starting letter. also, when i was very young, i described the life of someone else who had died a few years before, down to small details, even of my death. when i was just able to hold a crayon i drew pictures of soldiers parachuting during the war, before i could talk. it seems that in a 'previous life' i was a fighter pilot, who was shot down over the channel. i can remember little now, but when i was just able to talk i even gave names of people, who it turned out we loosely knew.

Birds, and other creatures, can definately communicate, whether through 'spoken' language or some other way. has anyone notices how a forest full of birds can take flight simultaneously, without a sound or other obvious message to initiate this? large schools of fish move perfectly in unison, without communication, and of course theres the 'sixth sense', which nobody can deny exists. a similar thing can happen between people, leading people to question the existance of telepathy etc.

Then again, i suppose she does have to teach half the school...

Thanks Al. yet another question that my physics teacher failed to answer...

I will have to take your word for that, as i do not understand the latter half (being at GCSE). however, what happens in the case with gravity? why is it that it is not infinite?

i think you are talking about Quantum tunneling, when the wavefunction of a particle 'leaks' across a gap that the particle cannot cross, and if given long enough the particle can be found across the gap. in a more general way, it is as if the particle 'borrows' energy from the surroundings briefly before paying it back.

but even if the individual particles repel each other a particle will not repel itself from collapsing, which it would if the gravitational field was infinite, which would still produce a point with an infinite gravitational field, regardless of the origin of the point, be it a single particle or an entire star. and once this has been established (which sould take zero time - another problem) if they forces involved are infinite, then the strength of one force compared to the other is irrelevant? even if there was a VERY strong magnetic repultion the infinite gravity would overcome this? but then again this argument can be applied to both forces, so both would be infinite - and if both infinite then how could one triumph over the other?

Just a quick question (probably with an obvious answer). In space, if an astronaut fires a rocket on one side of him, it will cause him to turn, even though there does not seem to be a pivot. also, but if the rocket is fired with more energy, then is the location where the pivot should be (according to his motion) moved?

I think the barrier that stops the neutrons smashing together is called a coloumb barrier, but i am not sure i am, after all, merely studying at GSCE level and reading a little extra

Also, this argument can be applied to any 3D field. i only used a magnetic field as an example. for another example, the strength of a gravitational field is also governed by this law. however, as this can be measured to within an object, this can be applied even if fundermental particles do have a volume or size (such as in superstring theory). once again, the closer you go the stronger the attraction, which would once again reach infinity. however, for gravity, this would cause catastrophe, if every mass had an infinite gravitational attraction. it would result in EVERY SINGLE MASS turing into a black hole of infinite strength, which we can be assured they do not. this argument defies more than just common sense, for if a particle experienced a gravitational attraction of infinite strength, it would have infinite potential energy to convert to kinetic enery, which would enable it to reach the speed of light, and maybe even break it, which einstein has told us can not happen. also, if a particle had infinite energy it would have infinite mass (thanks to E=mc^2), which would result in a universe of infinite mas, which brings us to ask the question that if this is so then why is the universe expanding? surely if the universe did have infinite mass then it would simply shrink down to a size of 1/inf? and why did the big bang even occur(if it is the true beginning)?