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Food Inequality


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#1 petrushkagoogol

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Posted 21 November 2016 - 09:39 PM

Food stimulates the visual cortex, the olfactory senses and the sense of taste.
It even affects the limbic system.
Food with identical chemistry, should affect all people in the same way, but it doesn't.
The aforesaid senses are stimulated differently in different people for the same food item.
Why ?  :out: 
 
 

 



#2 exchemist

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Posted 22 November 2016 - 01:57 AM

 

Food stimulates the visual cortex, the olfactory senses and the sense of taste.
It even affects the limbic system.
Food with identical chemistry, should affect all people in the same way, but it doesn't.
The aforesaid senses are stimulated differently in different people for the same food item.
Why ?  :out: 
 
 

 

What evidence do you have that these senses are "stimulated in a different way" in different people?



#3 petrushkagoogol

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Posted 22 November 2016 - 09:21 AM

What evidence do you have that these senses are "stimulated in a different way" in different people?

 

I can't cite any evidence, just practical experience that all people don't have affinity for vanilla ice-cream for instance, even though it comes from the same brand. If you eliminate this then there will be no need for marketing department in companies....



#4 exchemist

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Posted 22 November 2016 - 09:36 AM

I can't cite any evidence, just practical experience that all people don't have affinity for vanilla ice-cream for instance, even though it comes from the same brand. If you eliminate this then there will be no need for marketing department in companies....

Ah I thought as much. I suspect (though again I do not have evidence) that the stimulation is identical, and it is the interpretation by the brain that varies from person to person. The reason I think this is that tastes in food are quite largely formed by experience (upbringing, culture and so on), though of course there are individual idiosyncrasies as well. The Japanese don't like cooked tomatoes, I don't like sea cucumber, my son and I like spicy food but most Frenchmen do not, and so on.

 

Sometimes there are physiological reasons too, for example many Asian adults are lactose-intolerant.But I don't think their sensory experience will be different: it is that they will associate milk with feeling nauseous, because that is what it does to them. So again an effect of the brain, rather than a different primary sensual experience.


Edited by exchemist, 22 November 2016 - 09:37 AM.


#5 arauca

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Posted 22 November 2016 - 04:50 PM

I believe our early childhood  have much to do  for taste  and metabolism  in our adulthood  and so  will our senses to utilise that food.