Gender and hormons verus Reasoning

[jpittelo]

I have a question about the gender studies as seen from a biochemical approach :

 

Let suppose we define the ratio : BHSQ=Conc(Oest)/Conc(Test) as : brain hormonal sexualisation ratio as being the ratio of the concetration of oestrogens (I don't know if those are in the brain too) and testosterone.

 

Can someone indicate me if the "gender bahaviour" of the testperson is mostly defined by this ratio, or by the difference : Conc(Oest)-Conc(Test), hence the absolute concentration would have been more indicative (concentration in mol/litre ?)

 

Do you know if experiments are done about testing if the diminution of Conc(Oest) and Conc(Test) by the same factor (to maintain BHSQ constant) will let the patient in the same behavioural state, but will permit a higher part for pure reasoning activities. (I take as a priori, that for example, increasing oestrogens in a male patient will give him effeminate gestuals, for example).

 

Tanks in advance.