Don Blazys 26,415 Posted December 31, 2008 Author Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 To: Nootropic, Again, you are way, way off topic. If you want to discuss "analysis" or "fields", then start your own thread on those subjects. Here, at this thread, we are discussing "elementary number theory" where the concept of a common factor requires that any common factor T>1. Now, can you, or can you not point to an error in my equation and answer the four simple questions that I asked in post #65 ? Don. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Nootropic 7,084 Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 Once again, you utterly fail to realize the connections that different areas of studies have. Clearly, if this equation implies multiplication by one implies division by zero, then, as the integers are contained in the real numbers, we have n = n/0 as an undefined expression in the real numbers. This is hardly an off-topic matter. And for the tenth time, it does not matter what the equation says (others have analyzed this). It matters that if this "true equation" holds, then multiplication by one results in division by zero. False. The middle-schoolers at the Art of Problem Solving Forum had more than enough background to dispel such ridiculous arguments. No fallacies in your arguments? Hah, show some modesty. There were even flaws in Wiles and Perelman's arguments! Mathematics is a thing that must be widely agreed upon by professionals. You wouldn't find one professional mathematician with an upstanding reputation who would back this. If there are no fallacies, send it in to a professional journal and see what they say. I would hardly call fundamental logic "childish gibberish". Mathematics rests upon it and a solid knowledge of it should be every mathematician has. You apparently have a very weak knowledge of it. Answering your questions, Don, is apparently only possible if you answer them because either no one else's mathematics is "correct" to you or no one knows what you mean by your terms you have yet to define, for example, what do you mean "better defined variables"? Don, I suggest you go back and read others posts and take your equation for what it means, not that it is some utterly "profound statement". Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Nootropic 7,084 Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 To clarify the above, what I'm saying is that the equation is not necessarily incorrect, but what claim it implies is completely ridiculous. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Don Blazys 26,415 Posted December 31, 2008 Author Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 To: Nootropic, Okay, since you don't know that variables are defined by their domains, I will help you along with the first question: "Which term has the better defined variables?" Given the "Blazys equation": [math]\frac{T}{T}a^x = T \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{\left(\frac{\frac{x\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}{\frac{\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}\right)}[/math] where the variables all represent non negative integers, if the terms are considered seperately, then the variables comprising the term on the right have the intrinsic domains: T={2, 3, 4...}, a={1, 2, 3...} and x={0, 1, 2...}. Note that no two variables have the same intrinsic domain and definition. However, the variables comprising the term on the left have the domains: T={1, 2, 3...}, a={0, 1, 2...} and x={0, 1, 2...} where the variables "a" and "x" both have the exact same intrinsic domain and thus the exact same definition. Clearly, the "Blazys term" on the right is comprised of "perfectly defined variables" while the term on the left is comprised of "abysmally defined variables". This makes the term on the right vastly superior to the term on the left. Also, the term on the right is actually the first and only basic algebraic term (one multiplication, one exponentiation) in the entire history of mathematics to have this property! That fact alone makes it utterly miraculous and gives it a lot more "clout" than the poorly defined term on the left because in mathematics, constructs that are perfectly defined constitute a higher order of logic than constructs that are poorly defined. Thus, the term on the right, that I named a "cohesive term", is by far the most frightening animal that has ever been unleashed on the mathematical community, because whatever it indicates must be true for non-negative integers! It also sheds new light on and brings into question all existing constructs and paradigms that foolishly allow unit common factors to occur, and is thus the source of great embarrassment to many in the math community. Others are simply jealous that they didn't think of it! By the way, there are also many very good professional mathematicians (including a well known N.A.S.A./ J.P.L scientist) that have endorsed my work and have indicated (both in writing and verbally) that it is both interesting and thought provoking. (I posted a few of their letters on my website (donblazys.com). Thus far, you have offered absolutely nothing of any substance. I, on the other hand, am simply allowing the true equation to do my talking for me.You see, I am actually a very humble person and freely admit that what I say doesn't really matter. However, what the equation says at T=1 matters very much, and sooner or later, the entire math community will have to come to grips with what the irrefutable properties of logarithms are telling us. That will take more courage than currently exists in the math community. You have in no way logically refuted, dismissed or dispelled the validity of my equation, but mindlessly persist in telling me that it is somehow "wrong". Trust me, the irrefutable properties of logarithms will never ever imply that something is "ridiculous" unless it really is! Again, if it is wrong, then point out the error. Otherwise, see if you can muster up the courage to answer the three remaining questions in post #65. Don. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

ughaibu 30,835 Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 Now, if N is a non-negative integer, then the "blunt form":(0/0)=N implies that any non-negative integer N multiplied by 0 equals 0.That's a "reasonable implication" because N*0=0 is a "true statement".In such a case zero divided by zero would equal the set of all possible numbers. What happens then? Quote Link to post Share on other sites

CraigD 398,738 Posted December 31, 2008 Report Share Posted December 31, 2008 [math]\frac{T}{T}a^x = T \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{\left(\frac{\frac{x\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}{\frac{\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}\right)}[/math] if our variables are to represent non-negative integers, then: (1) Which term has the better defined variables? This doesn’t seem to me a meaningful question. Per the given, all variables are non-negative integers. Because [math]\ln(0)[/math] is undefined, and division by zero not permitted in ordinary arithmetic, the additional constraints [math]T > 0[/math] and [math]T \not= a[/math]. These statements fully define the domain of the expression. It makes no sense to me to ask which terms has the better defined variables, as their definitions apply to them throughout the expression. Perhaps Don means to consider the domains of 2 separate expressions, (1) [math]\frac{T}{T}a^x[/math] and (2) [math]T \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{\left(\frac{\frac{x\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}{\frac{\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}\right)}[/math] The domain of expression 1 is unconstrained, other than the given (and unnecessary) requirement that they be non-negative integers. The domain of expression 2 is additionally constrained as above. However, it makes no sense to me to call a more constrained domain “better defined”. For a number to be better defined than another, the other must be in some sense less than fully, explicitly defined. All of the variables above are fully, explicitly defined. To describe the domain of expression 2 as “perfectly defined”, and that of expression 1 as “abysmally defined”, as Don does in post #72 is informal and, IMHO, inflated and silly. (2) Keeping in mind that unity is not an actual common factor but a "trivial" or "degenerate" common factor, which term is more suitable for representing actual common factors? That 1 is a factor of every number is a key theorem of ordinary airthmatic. A formal system lacking such a theorem would little resemble arithmetic, and, in short, be weird. Don appears to be misusing the terms “trivial” and “degenerate”. Trivial is a relative term meaning, roughly, “not difficult”. It isn’t a formal term. Degeneracy is formal term (see the wikipedia link above), but isn’t applicable to a integer or real valued constant. (3) Keeping in mind that what we do to one side of an identity, we must also do to the other, can we "cross out" the cancelled T's the way we were taught in school? Although I’ve only a vague idea what Don means by “cross out … the way we were taught in school”, and am aware that many students are taught math very poorly, the following is true: [math]\frac{T}{T}a^x = T \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{\left(\frac{\frac{x\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}{\frac{\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}\right)}[/math] may be written [math]\frac{a^x}{T} = \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{\left(\frac{\frac{x\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}{\frac{\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}\right)}[/math] (4) What occurs at T=1 and what does it imply? A division by zero occurs. In the usual axiomatic system of arithmetic of real numbers, division by zero is an error condition, implying that the expression has an indeterminate value, rather than one of the usual value of an expression that is an equation, true of false. When answering these questions, please remember that the above equation is absolutely new to mathematics ( I discovered it only a decade ago) so there is, as of yet, no "general consensus" on what it actually means. There are a infinite number of equations that have never been written. Most are of little interest. [math]\frac{a^x}{T} = \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{\left(\frac{\frac{x\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}{\frac{\ln(a)}{\ln(T)}-1}\right)}[/math] makes for a good exercise in algebra to prove (see Algebraic proof of “Blazys equation”), but despite Don’s claims (eg: that it can be used to prove Fermat’s last theorem and Beal’s conjecture), appears to have no further utility, despite Don’s claims to the contrary, such as It's proper interpretation is perhaps the greatest challenge that the mathematical community has ever faced! and By the way, there are also many very good professional mathematicians (including a well known N.A.S.A./ J.P.L scientist) that have endorsed my work and have indicated (both in writing and verbally) that it is both interesting and thought provoking. (I posted a few of their letters on my website (donblazys.com). Also, claims such as these latter should be backed up with links or citation. Simply saying support for them is posted at website, and giving its homepage, is not adequate citation. :naughty: The past few post of this thread have largely been an exchange of accusations and denials between Don and Nootropic, such as One sign of crackpot mathematics is its implications and you fail to realize the implications your apparent discovery imposes. Also, please back up your claims. If you think that my equation is "crackpot mathematics" then show us where the error lies. Hypography’s site rules require that we back up our claims. However, Nootropic’s claim is, essentially, that Don’s claims are unsupported, and need to be backed up. This post from another math forum thread reference to Scott Aaronson’s “Ten Signs a Claimed Mathematical Breakthrough is Wrong” Though Aaronson’s list focuses specifically on the NP complete problem, it’s applicable, I think, to math in general, and to this thread in particular. I think Don would benefit from considering how closely his own writing matches the signs in this list, and attempting to make it match less closely. Justly or unjustly, all experienced math readers apply similar heuristics in determining how much effort to put into attempting to understand a post, paper, or website. If your writing triggers a reader’s “BS detector”, it’s unlikely to be taken seriously by her or him, so ignoring such lists is unwise. First on Aaronson’s list is1. The authors don’t use TeX.Hypography isn’t a publisher, so doesn’t have file contents format requirements such as requiring the use of TeX, but our equivalent of this sign is “the poster doesn’t use LaTeX”. Don, in 3 months of posing, you persist in writing mathematical expressions as difficult to read strings, rather than use hypography’s available rendering features. I’m uncertain why, but don’t like it. :thumbs_do Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Don Blazys 26,415 Posted January 2, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 2, 2009 To:Ughaibu 0/0=N does indeed tell us that N can be any non-negative integer. Therefore, it is called "indeterminate" because if there is no further information on how we got 0/0, then we can't determine it's exact value. It's only use is in making general statements such as: "One raised to any power equals one," or in mathematical symbols: 1^(0/0)=1^N=1. However, this thread is not about "indeterminate forms". It's about the proper restrictions that must occur if we are to represent and eliminate common factors correctly. For instance, if we have the equation: Ta^x+Tb^y=Tc^z, where all the variables are positive integers, then how do we eliminate the common factor T so that the equation becomes "co-prime" (Contains no common factor.)? Well, these days, students are being taught that we should divide each and every T by T, then "cross out" the T's so that they "disappear". Doing so gives us: (T/T)a^x+(T/T)b^y=(T/T)c^z = a^x+b^y=c^z. However, this is wrong, because it implies that x, y and z can all be greater than 2 when there is no common factor. In reality, when there is no common factor, then we must have a "restriction" on either x, y or z so that either: x={1,2}, y={1,2} or z={1,2}. Where did we go wrong? Well, we never actually prevented T=1, did we? Preventing T=1 is important, because a true or "non-trivial" common factor is defined as T>1. Now, watch what happens if we refuse to "cross out" the T's "prematurely" and re-write the co-prime equation: (T/T)a^x+(T/T)b^y=(T/T)c^z so that it appears as either: (T/T)a^x+(T/T)b^y=T(c/T)^((zln©/(ln(T))-1)/(ln©/(ln(T))-1)), or (in it's factored form): ((T/T)a^(x/2))^2+((T/T)b^(y/2))^2=(T(c/T)^(((z/2)ln©/(ln(T))-1)/(ln©/(ln(T))-1)))^2. Immediately we find that by substituting just one "Blazys term", we eliminated any possibility that T=1. Now, take a good close look at the last three equations. Notice that the first one tells us that T=c is allowable while the next two tell us that before we can allow T=c, we must first let z=1 and z=2, then immediately "cross out" the logarithms themselves. Thus, the last three equations now appear as: (T/T)a^x+(T/T)b^y=(T/T)c^z, (T/T)a^x+(T/T)b^y=T(c/T) and ((T/T)a^(x/2))^2+((T/T)b^(y/2))^2=(T(c/T))^2. Now, and only now can we allow T=c, or we can simply "cross out" the remaining T's so that the above three equations appear as: a^x+b^y=c^z, a^x+b^y=c and a^x+b^y=c^2. Notice that the first of the above three equations is a lie because it implies that if we add together any two co-prime numbers a^x, (x>2) and b^y, (y>2), we might get a third number c^z where z>2. The other two equations tell us the truth, which is that if we add together any two co-prime numbers a^x, (x>2) and b^y, (y>2), then the exponent of c must be either 1 or 2. Try it yourself! Add together any two co-prime positive integers under the sun with exponents greater than 2 and you will find that their sum will always have an exponent of either 1 or 2. Most importantly, notice that "indeterminate forms" such as 0/0 are never ever encountered if we do the algebra correctly and "cross out" or "cancel out" the expressions involving logarithms the very moment that we let z=1 and z=2. Believe it or not, there are some mathematicians who don't think it's possible to "cross out" or "cancel out" the logarithms at z=1 and z=2. I think that they are mistaken. I think that conjuring up "indeterminate forms" that don't even exist is just plain silly. Not only is this the correct way to represent and eliminate "common factors", but it also shows us that problems such as the "Beal Conjecture" and "Fermat's Last Theorem" would never have existed had mankind learned how to properly represent and eliminate common factors to begin with! Thus, it's quite understandable that many in the math community find this irrefutable result to be "embarrassing". It is the solution to those supposedly "hard" problems! Don. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Don Blazys 26,415 Posted January 3, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 3, 2009 To:Craig D. When discussing the domains of the variables in the equation, I did say that the terms should be considered or taken seperately. However, we are not discussing the definitions of numbers, but of variables. In other words, we are discussing the fact that any variable is defined by it's domain, and if two different variables have the same domain, then they have, in essence, the same definition. The concept is very simple. If we define the variables a and x as: a={0,1,2...} and x={0,1,2...}, then a and x mean the exact same thing. However if we define a and x as: a={1,2,3...} and x={0,1,2...}, then clearly, a and x mean two different things! To put it in yet another way, if we let the symbols: "a" or "{1,2,3...}" represent the word "cat", and "x" or "{0,1,2...}" represent the word "dog", then without "Blazys terms", we would forever be forced to conclude that cats are dogs because all we would ever have is: a={0,1,2...} and x={0,1,2...}. So you see, by the proper restriction of domains, "Blazys terms" provide us with a great improvement in definition! That's a good thing, because only an idiot would call a cat a dog! I am making no claims whatsoever, but simply allowing the equations: (T/T)a^x=T(a/T)^((xln(a)/(ln(T))-1)/(ln(a)/(ln(T))-1)) and (it's factored form): ((T/T)a^(x/2))^2=(T(a/T)^(((x/2)ln(a)/(ln(T))-1)/(ln(a)/(ln(T))-1)))^2 to speak for themselves. They, not I say that letting T=1 is not possible. In other words, they, not I say that common factors, when they are allowed to become "trivial", clearly result in division by zero! How would you "cross out" the T's in the above equations?(By "crossing out", I mean "cancelling out" so that the cancelled T's "disappear".) Common factors are not unity, period! In fact, the phrase "a common factor of unity" is actually a "misnomer" in that it is supposed to "mean" that no common factor exists! Therefore, eliminating the possibility of multiplication by unity is not "wierd" but a basic concept of number theory! I'm simply the first to write an algebraic term that reflects that concept perfectly. You see, in number theory, unity is never viewed as a "multiplier" but as a "multiplicand". The reason for this is that the fundamental theorem of arithmetic tells us that every factorization is unique. Thus, if we allow multiplication by unity, then the number 6=1*2*3 would also be "factorable" as 1*1*2*3, 1*1*1*2*3 and so on. The sums of those factors would then be 6, 7, 8 and so on, and concepts such as "perfect numbers", "abundant numbers" and so on, would all collapse! "Blazys terms" were designed for use in number theory. They are the first and only algebraic terms that don't allow trivial common factors to creep in to our equations. Moreover, they prevent the loss of cancelled common factors, allow us to develop incredible one and two term prime counting functions and present us with an entirely new and more rigorous form of calculus. To say that there are an infinite number of ways to write an elementary expression such as a "Blazys term" is simply ludicrous. There is, essentially, only one way to write a "Blazys term" (where T>1). All the rest are simply "variations". None of the letters on my website are forgeries! Sorry, but I only began using a computer recently, so I don't know how to set up "links", nor do I know how to write in "LaTex" or put up "Smilies". Euler, Fermat and Gauss didn't use LaTex either. It doesn't make me wrong, just "old fashioned". Don. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Don Blazys 26,415 Posted January 3, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 3, 2009 To: Craig D, I just now noticed that a few posts ago, you took the trouble to edit my equation so that it now appears in LaTex. That's very kind of you! Very kind! Regardless of whether or not you agree with me, I, like any other Hypographer, strive to make my posts as entertaining as possible... and that sure helped! Thanks! Don. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

logy 6,117 Posted January 7, 2009 Report Share Posted January 7, 2009 After reading through a few pages of this topic, which seemed quite interesting to begin with, I have noticed a few recurring patterns 1. A gentleman called Don Blazys keep presenting complex arguments in a form that is very difficult to read, even for math professionals !2. He is also making some claim about [math]\frac{T}{T}[/math] and is using a complicated math identity and is totally unrelated to that claim in order to make it look fancy.3. The main reason that most people can't see through this, is due to the combination of the fact that the arguments are quite complicated, and the fact that they are being presented in an unreadable way !4. both Craig and Qfwfq have been more then accommodating, to the point of reformatting the arguments into a more readable format, as well as entertaining the notion that [math\frac{T}{T} a^x [/math] is different somehow from simply [math]a^x[/math]. I’m not a professional mathematician but I do have a grasp of some fundamental concepts and so: [math]\frac{T}{T}a^x = T \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{(some function)}[/math] is the same as [math]a^x = T \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{(some function)}[/math] is the same as [math]\frac{a^x}{T} = \left(\frac{a}{T}\right)^{(some function)}[/math] I have intentionally used the term 'some function' because even though it appears to be a fascinating identity (to me, a non professional), it has absolutely nothing to do with [math]\frac{T}{T}[/math]. I do agree with Craig that it should not be canceled out **automatically** because that leads to lack of understanding and ultimately to stupid mistakes, but rather should be canceled out with care, understanding that [math]\frac{T}{T} F(x) = F(x)[/math], since dividing a number by itself gives you 1, and multiplying a function by one does not change the result I recently had a long discussion with a mathematics professor who teaches year 1 engineering students and he claimed that his students tend to make fatal errors due to lack of understanding specifically he referred to [math]\sqrt{x^2+3^2}[/math] being simplified to [math]x+3[/math], which is incorrect since [math]\sqrt{2^2+3^2} = \sqrt{4+9} = \sqrt{13}[/math] not the same as [math]\sqrt{(2+3)}[/math]. Do you agree guys? :confused: if you have anything to say, please do :) (umm…unless your name is Don Blazys, in which case, please use LATEX :)) CraigD 1 Quote Link to post Share on other sites

CraigD 398,738 Posted January 7, 2009 Report Share Posted January 7, 2009 After reading through a few pages of this topic, which seemed quite interesting to begin with, I have noticed a few recurring patterns 1. A gentleman called Don Blazys keep presenting complex arguments in a form that is very difficult to read, even for math professionals !2. He is also making some claim about [math]\frac{T}{T}[/math] and is using a complicated math identity and is totally unrelated to that claim in order to make it look fancy.3. The main reason that most people can't see through this, is due to the combination of the fact that the arguments are quite complicated, and the fact that they are being presented in an unreadable way !4. both Craig and Qfwfq have been more then accommodating, to the point of reformatting the arguments into a more readable format, as well as entertaining the notion that [math]\frac{T}{T} a^x [/math] is different somehow from simply [math]a^x[/math]....Do you agree guys? :confused: if you have anything to say, please do :) I agree – oh, and a belated welcome to hypography, logy! Sorry, but I only began using a computer recently, so I don't know how to set up "links", nor do I know how to write in "LaTex" or put up "Smilies". To create links, enclose the URL of the page to which you wish to link with http:// and . For example, Hypography Science Forums will produce this link: Hypography Science Forums. To have your link display text other than the URL’s title, use something likehypography’s main page , which display as hypography’s main page . To enter a smiley, type :). For more exotic ones than a simple :), like :smart:, click the “more” link on the “smiley” panel on the “Reply to Thread” page, and select from the page that pops up. Euler, Fermat and Gauss didn't use LaTex either. It doesn't make me wrong, just "old fashioned". Euler, Fermat and Gauss didn't use LaTeX because, when they wrote, it didn’t exists. Had it, they almost certainly would have. They wrote in the best and most accepted medium of their day, pen on paper. When writing for others, they wrote neatly, so that their writing could be understood with a minimum of effort spent interpreting their glyphs and notation. They didn’t writing in stings of horizontally separated characters, press cuneiform marks into clay tablets, etc., because this would have made their writing unnecessarily difficult to read. Pen/pencil on paper is still an acceptable medium. To transmit it electronically, it’s necessary to capture a facsimile of it with a device such as a scanner or digital camera. These image files can be uploaded to your hypography “photos” gallery or any of many free image hosting websites. Because this process is labor and time-consuming, and the resulting images usually less readable than a LaTeX-rendered equivalent, most math writers prefer to use the LaTeX markup language, either transcribing their paper notation into it, or working in it directly, or using editors such as this online equation editor. Like most markup languages, the LaTeX math package is easy to learn. There are many online references and tutorials, including 6576, and 6457. You may see examples of the LaTeX used in any post by clicking on its “quote” button. And, finally, any thread with questions or request for instruction on using LaTeX or other site features will be gleefully answered by our members. If you persist in refusing to learn conventional online writing techniques, Don, you’re likely to be taken un-seriously or worse. Because most readers are aware how easy they are to learn, not using them leads one to wonder why someone should bother reading someone who is unable to learn them, or suspect that you are purposefully avoiding learning or using them in order to make yourself difficult to understand. I don’t believe you intend the latter, nor are unable to learn to these techniques, so strongly encourage you to learn and use them. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

ughaibu 30,835 Posted January 8, 2009 Report Share Posted January 8, 2009 the LaTeX math package is easy to learnThose using a japanese keyboard might take issue with this, when I tried experimenting with Latex I found very little correspondence between the instructions and the output. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

logy 6,117 Posted January 8, 2009 Report Share Posted January 8, 2009 Those using a japanese keyboard might take issue with this, when I tried experimenting with Latex I found very little correspondence between the instructions and the output. well, it would be hard for me to comment on that since i have already lerned to program in most of the common programing and scripting laguage. i guess it would be tricky to get used to at first like many things in life, and there are plenty of tutorials out there as mentioned before. when i stared with programming, i found that it is important to know what the besic symbols represent and how to use them. in LaTex, there are 5: { } [ ] ( ) / (3 types of brackets and 2 types of slashes) if you manage ot get a good idea of what each of them means and how to use it, then i expect that you will find LaTex much, much easier ! :) Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Don Blazys 26,415 Posted January 8, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 8, 2009 I figured it out! The "Smilies" don't appear on the "post reply" screen but do appear once the reply is submitted! Moreover, it is possible to check if the correct "Smiley" has been put up simply by clicking on the "preview post" box. Not bad for a guy who never even touched a "personal computer" in his entire life! You see, old dogs can learn new tricks! And now... to celebrate! :cheer: :circle: :applause: :friday: :note: :note2: :lol: :) Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Don Blazys 26,415 Posted January 8, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 8, 2009 Now that I know how to put up "Smilies", my next challenge is to learn how to post equations in LaTex, but that will take a little more time so please be patient. I honestly don't find equations written in LaTex "easier to read", but that's just me. Therefore, I will indeed learn to post in LaTex for the sake of those who require it, because I really do want everyone to understand the incredible, important and irrefutable result in post #75, which pretty much "sums up" this entire topic. You know, I spent over three years in Japan, mostly in Osaka, and was very, very impressed by the overall intelligence of the Japenese people. Their students study much harder and more diligently than their American counterparts, and from what I have seen first hand, when it comes to math and science, it's simply "no contest". LaTex or no LaTex, my guess is that what I said in post #75 will be understood by Japenese teachers and students long before it is understood by teachers and students in the United States. Don. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

DaveTO 10 Posted January 9, 2009 Report Share Posted January 9, 2009 I find this thread really frustrating. I know nothing about what your equation means, or the implications of it, I just like to try and learn things and enjoy a lot of the discussions here. However, along with the last person who joined to comment here I think there is a need to point a few things out. Don, I keep seeing you write that you just began using a computer. That is a fine excuse for not using LaTeX. Or at least it was two months ago. It seems that you are spending more time writing about your little understanding of computers than it takes to actually learn anything about them. Instead of saying you don't know how, try spending five minutes of your time looking up how to use it. I think the mods and other users here are being a little too nice about everything considering how unwilling you are to help them out. If the great minds of the past didn't use LaTeX, should that affect your use of it? Of course not. When you write a formula on paper you are using "LaTeX" automatically, unless everything you handwrite looks like this: ((2/3^5)/7)-35. But of course it doesn't, so why force people to read it that way here and then spend their time translating it into something more legible? Your last post must be a joke also. Even if what you said is true, how would it affect the people who are critiquing you right now? They are surely smarter than the average student and most likely the majority of teachers, whether the nationality is Japanese, Swedish, American, or any other. If you really feel that the people on this forum are that far under the intelligence needed to understand your formula, why don't you stop posting here and send it to a place that can actually accomplish your goal, like an academic journal? I know the answer, and I am sure many others here do, but are being too kind to admit it to you directly. Stop posting excuses, they don't matter here. Ignorance should never be an excuse, saying you don't want to learn something or that you never needed to before is a terrible way to approach anything. Answer their questions, accommodate their needs if they are reasonable, argue your point, and you can prove your point soon enough provided you are right. If you aren't willing to do these simple steps then don't bother wasting everybody's time. Anyway, keep posting everybody, Im going back to the shadows of the internet =D. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

Don Blazys 26,415 Posted January 10, 2009 Author Report Share Posted January 10, 2009 I also find this thread very frustrating. When I first started posting, I never even heard of "LaTex" and was very surprised when my not using it became a "major issue". This thread then went way off topic when those silly non-existent "indeterminate forms" somehow became the subject of discussion. I make no excuses and take full responsibility for these things. I will try to refrain from posting any more equations until I find the time to learn how to write them in LaTex. I don't own a computer so the time required to practice my "computer skills" is quite limited. However, I am making progress, as is evidenced by my recently aquired ability to put up "Smilies", so please be patient. As I said before, this entire topic can be summed up in post #75, and when I finally write those equations in LaTex, then both Japenese, and Americans will realize that problems such as the "Beal Conjecture" and "Fermat's Last Theorem" are the real "joke" because they don't even exist if we represent and eliminate common factors correctly using "Blazys terms", which are the only algebraic terms that actually prevent idiotic "unit common factors" from occurring. In the meantime, there still might be a few "old school" mathematicians out there who are perfectly capable of understanding post #75, even though it is not written in Latex. Once they get over the initial shock that the equations are indeed correct, they just might take it upon themselves to join me in my cause... my crusade for truth in mathematics. The truth, of course, is that unity is not a common factor. Present day algebraic terms are obviously inconsistent with that truth, and I believe that our teachers and students deserve algebraic terms that are consistent with that truth. Don. Quote Link to post Share on other sites

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