sanctus Posted January 30, 2005 Report Share Posted January 30, 2005 Just a question, when usually one says a particle has spin 3/2 it actually means that the particle has a certain probability to have spin: -3/2, -1/2, 1/2, 3/2 ? Is this is right?I think it is right because when you represent a particle with spin s you write wave function with 2s+1 components.... Thanks to anyone who knows! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
maddog Posted January 31, 2005 Report Share Posted January 31, 2005 Just a question, when usually one says a particle has spin 3/2 it actually means that the particle has a certain probability to have spin: -3/2, -1/2, 1/2, 3/2 ? Is this is right?I think it is right because when you represent a particle with spin s you write wave function with 2s+1 components.... Thanks to anyone who knows! I remember this from my QM class. Basically, I would agree with you. I vaguely remember a Clebsch-Gordon fucntion (this is hazy) whose computation give these values.You typically think of the excited particles as being these. Both Muon, and Baryon. Maddog Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts